Q 1. What is the significance of fasting in the month of Shawwal? Is this based on the Qur'an and Sunnah? Please enlighten.
A 1. Fasting of six days in the month of Shawwal is mentioned in a Hadith of the Prophet -peace be upon him. He said, "Whosoever fasted in Ramadan and then followed up with six fasts in Shawwal, it is like fasting every day." (Sahih Muslim, Kitab al-Sawm, Hadith no. 1984) The meaning is that the reward is like the reward of a person who is always in fast every day of his/her life. It is highly recommended to fast six days in Shawwal, but it is not obligatory (fard). Those who want to fast can fast after the Eidul Fitr any six days during Shawwal. It is not required to fast six days continuously without any interruption. One can fast according to convenience any time during the month and the fast is very much like the fasts of Ramadan.
Q 2. Why are only Jews and Christians considered "People of the Book"? Or what are the criteria of awarding such a title? It is said in the Holy Qur'an "there was not a nation without a warner", which means that Allah's prophets and messengers came to all people and gave their people Allah's message, but later their people tampered with those messages. So, don't you think that people from other religious backgrounds could be qualified as "People of the Book" too, regardless of their tampering with the scriptures? Christians and Jews have also altered their scriptures but we still consider them "People of the Book".
A 2. "Ahl al-Kitab" or "People of the Book" is a term of the Qur'an that is specifically used for Jews and Christians. In Surah al-Ma'idah, Allah says, "Say, O People of the Book, you have nothing (of the guidance) unless you observe the Torah and Injil and that which is revealed to you from your Lord…" (5:68) This verse makes is very clear that what is meant by "the Book" is the revelation of Allah that came in the Torah and Injil. On the basis of this all Muslim jurists (fuqaha') are unanimous that only Jews and Christians are the People of the Book. When Muslims came into contact with the people of other major religions such as Buddhists and Hindus, they treated them like the People of the Book, but without calling them "People of the Book". The Jurists were unanimous that Muslims should treat them as the People of the Book, but should not eat the meat prepared by them and should not marry their women.
Why did Allah give this title only to Jews and Christians and not to any other group while He sent His messages to all people through His Prophets and Messengers? I think this is because of two reasons:
1. Jewish and Christian scriptures are closer to the Qur'an than any other scriptures. Although the Torah and Injil were not fully preserved and their texts were tampered with, still if you compare these books with other religious scriptures you will find them closer to the Qur'an than any other books. There are many parallels and similarities between these books and the Qur'an. The Qur'an has specifically referred to these books in many places.
2. Among all the religious people these two groups, Jews and Christians, talk about their book, the Bible, more than any body else. They write it, translate it, refer to it all the time and distribute it all over the world. Thus phenomenologically speaking they are the people who emphasize their book more than any body else. Buddhists and Hindus do have their many holy scriptures, but all of them neither agree on the importance of all their scriptures, nor do they use them or refer to them as much as Jews and Christians do. Considering this phenomenon, it is interesting to see that recently some non-Muslim scholars of Comparative Religions have also started using this term "People of the Book" for Jews, Christians. (They include Muslims too among the people of the book.)
Q 3. I have heard somebody say that the word "Hoor" in Arabic is genderless. I wanted to verify it with you. If the word "Hoor" is genderless then based on that can we argue that "good women will be awarded with Hoors too?" Currently, most scholars believe that only good men will be rewarded with "Hoors". Is the word "Hoor" only used with reference to men? What will the women be rewarded in the heavens with? (Asher Uddin Fawad, Rodeo, CA)
A 3. The word "hoor" is not genderless. It refers to women who have beautiful eyes. In the Qur'an, this word has occurred four times (al-Dukhan 44:54; al-Tur 52:20; al-Rahman 55:72; al-Waqi'ah 56:22). In all these cases it refers to women, not men.
The reward in Jannah will be for all the believing and pious men and women. In Surah al-Ahzab (33:35) Allah has mentioned various categories of believers from among the men and women and then He says, "Allah has prepared for them forgiveness and a vast reward." Allah says that the Believers will have there whatever their souls desire and whatever will please their eyes. (al-Zukhruf 43:71). So rest assured there is great reward for every one. Whatever is mentioned is only symbolic to make us imagine the beauty and greatness of Allah's reward, otherwise Jannah contains that which is beyond our total imagination and grasp here in this finite world. Allah said in the Qur'an, "No soul knows what is kept hidden for them of joy, as a reward of what they used to do." (al-Sajdah 32:17) The Prophet -peace be upon him- explained this through a Hadith Qudsi: "Allah says that I have prepared for my pious servants in Jannah what no eye has ever seen, no ear has ever heard and no heart or soul has ever imagined." (al-Bukhari, Hadith 3005)